|Man Without Qualities|
Thursday, September 18, 2003
The first person has been arrested under a 1998 California state law making it a crime to knowingly and intentionally expose another person to the virus that causes AIDS.
That seems right.
But why has nobody been arrested under this law before? It was enacted five years ago.
And why does the law apply only to knowing and intentional exposures of another person to the AIDS virus? Shouldn't it also be a crime for a person to recklessly expose another to the AIDS virus?
Why should someone who frequents sex bars but never has himself or herself tested for the virus not be considered a criminal?
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